I read with interest the blawrgument (I might need an intervention with all these pseudo-words) regarding whether breaking the law is, in itself, an immoral act. The discussion went from prosecutor to defender, across the country, and it covered most of the issues, specifically revolving around the morality of pleading not guilty when the defendant did commit a crime.

The point I found myself pondering is this: When the founding fathers rebelled against the English, breaking the laws of their parent nation, did that make them immoral? Are we, as Americans, a nation founded on immorality? If not, where lies the difference?